Would you class Martial Law introduced unlawfully in Poland in December 1981 as state crime?

Hi Everyone,

I was writing an essay in which I was trying to prove that state crime should always be a high priority when studying criminology when I came across case study of Poland. It made me think whether the state of war introduced by the State Council can be classed as state crime. I've researched plenty of journals and academic papers but couldn't find even one that would state that it is/isn't. What do you think?Maybe you've got some links to electronic sources which could prove the point?

Thanks!